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IBM Security Trusteer Apex Advance Malware Protection Partner Sales Mastery v1

Question No: 1

  1. They are easy to obtain

  2. They are easy to remember

  3. They can be used to provide access to corporate systems

  4. They are publicly available

Answer: C

Question No: 2

Trusteer Apex wins in the Advanced Threat Protection market for various reasons. Select the answer which is NOT true.

  1. Low overhead on IT/security teams

  2. Advanced multi-level defenses

  3. Transparent to end-users

  4. There is no performance degradation on the endpoint

Answer: C

Question No: 3

Which layer of protection is exclusive to Trusteer Apex?

  1. Exploit Chain Disruption

  2. Malware Communication Blocking

  3. Java protection

  4. Credential protection

Answer: D

Question No: 4

In what way is Trusteer Apex different from traditional Anti-Virus (AV) solutions?

  1. Apex works in the same way as a traditional desktop signature-based AV solution

  2. Apex focuses on the root cause of infection by detecting application anomalies and suspicious behavior

  3. Apex can be integrated into the customer#39;s mobile application

  4. Apex prevents fraudulent online transactions from taking place

Answer: B

Reference:

https://www- 304.ibm.com/partnerworld/wps/servlet/RedirectServlet?cmsId=swg_ast_sfw_ibm-training- materials-security-systems-sales-mestery-test- pptsamp;attachmentName=Security_Core_Education_Threat-Infrastructure.pptx

Question No: 5

Which product does Trusteer Apex integrate directly with in the Threat Protection System framework?

  1. XGS

  2. QRadar

  3. PinPoint

  4. ISAM for Mobile

Answer: A

Reference: https://www.securitysummit.it/static/files/atti_roma_2014/19/19.06.2014_RAGUSEO.pdf

Question No: 6

  1. 2

  2. 3

  3. 4

  4. 5

Answer: D

Reference:

http://www-03.ibm.com/software/sla/sladb.nsf/pdf/6669-02/$file/i126-6669-02_12- 2014_en_US.pdf

Question No: 7

Which vendor is NOT a Trusteer Apex competitor?

  1. HP

  2. FireEye/Mandiant

  3. Palo Alto/Cyvera

  4. Microsoft

Answer: B

Question No: 8

Trusteer Apex is a SaaS offering. What is the name of the cloud-based management application?

  1. TMA

  2. SiteProtector

  3. QRadar

  4. ISAM for Mobile

Answer: D

Question No: 9

Trusteer Apex should be positioned as a direct replacement for your customer#39;s Anti-Virus solution.

  1. True

  2. False

Answer: B

Question No: 10

Apex has a layer of protection which disrupts the exploit chain and prevents exploit code from doing its job. Which statement clarifies this feature?

  1. Apex detects and removes mobile malware

  2. Apex prevents the exploitation of known and zero-day vulnerabilities and stops drive-by downloads

  3. Apex prevents command and control (Camp;C) communication

  4. Apex can be used to enforce a secure configuration of employee endpoints

Answer: D

Reference: http://www.trusteer.com/de/node/3316

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LPIC-3 Exam 303: Security, 2.0

Question No: 31

Which of the following database names can be used within a Name Service Switch (NSS) configuration file? (Choose THREE correct answers).

  1. host

  2. shadow

  3. service

  4. passwd

  5. group

Answer: A,C,E

Question No: 32

Which of the following command lines sets the administrator password for ntop to testing 123?

  1. ntop -set-admin-password=testing123

  2. ntop -set-password-testing123

  3. ntop -reset-password=testing 123

  4. ntop -set-new-password=testing123

Answer: A

Question No: 33

What is the purpose of IP sets?

  1. They group together IP addresses that are assigned to the same network interfaces.

  2. They group together IP addresses and networks that can be referenced by the network routing table.

  3. They group together IP addresses that can be referenced by netfilter rules.

  4. They group together IP and MAC addresses used by the neighbors on the local network.

  5. They group together IP addresses and user names that can be referenced from

/etc/hosts allow and /etc/hosts deny

Answer: C

Question No: 34 CORRECT TEXT

What command is used to update NVTs from the OpenVAS NVT feed? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters).

Answer: openvas-nvt-sync http://www.openvas.org/openvas-nvt-feed.html

Question No: 35

Which of the following lines in an OpenSSL configuration adds an X 509v3 Subject Alternative Name extension for the host names example.org and www.example.org to a certificate#39;?

  1. subjectAltName = DNS: www example.org, DNS:example.org

  2. extension= SAN: www.example.org, SAN:example.org

  3. subjectAltName: www.example.org, subjectAltName: example.org

  4. commonName = subjectAltName= www.example.org, subjectAltName = example.org

  5. subject= CN= www.example.org, CN=example.org

Answer: A

Question No: 36

Which of the following information, within a DNSSEC- signed zone, is signed by the key signing key?

  1. The non-DNSSEC records like A, AAAA or MX

  2. The zone signing key of the zone.

  3. The RRSIG records of the zone.

  4. The NSEC or NSEC3 records of the zone.

  5. The DS records pointing to the zone

Answer: B

Question No: 37

Which of the following commands displays all ebtable rules contained in the table filter including their packet and byte counters?

  1. ebtables -t nat -L -v

  2. ebtables-L-t filter -Lv

  3. ebtables-t filter-L-Lc

  4. ebtables -t filter -Ln -L

  5. ebtables-L -Lc-t filter

Answer: C

Question No: 38

Which of the following access control models is established by using SELinux?

  1. Security Access Control (SAC)

  2. Group Access Control (GAC)

  3. User Access Control (UAC)

  4. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

  5. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Answer: E

Question No: 39

What is the purpose of the program snort-stat?

  1. It displays statistics from the running Snort process.

  2. It returns the status of all configured network devices.

  3. It reports whether the Snort process is still running and processing packets.

  4. It displays the status of all Snort processes.

  5. It reads syslog files containing Snort information and generates port scan statistics.

Answer: E

Question No: 40

Which of the following methods can be used to deactivate a rule in Snort? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

  1. By placing a # in front of the rule and restarting Snort

  2. By placing a pass rule in local.rules and restarting Snort.

  3. By deleting the rule and waiting for Snort to reload its rules files automatically.

  4. By adding a pass rule to /etc/snort/rules.deactivated and waiting for Snort to reload its rules files automatically.

Answer: B,C

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LPIC-3 Exam 303: Security, 2.0

Question No: 21

Which of the following commands defines an audit rule that monitors read and write operations to the file/ etc/firewall/rules and associates the rule with the name firewall?

  1. auditctl -N firewall -r r: /etc/firewall/rules -r w: etc/firewall/rules

  2. auditctl -A -f /etc/firewall/rules -o r- o w -l firewall

  3. auditctl -w /etc/firewall/rules -p rw -k firewall

  4. auditctl -_read /etc/firewall/rules -_write /etc/firewall/rules -label firewall

  5. echo quot;n: firewall r:/etc/firewall/rules: w:/ etc/firewall/rules:quot; | auditctl ~

Answer: C

Question No: 22 CORRECT TEXT

What option of mount.cifs specifies the user that appears as the local owner of the files of a mounted CIFS share when the server does not provide ownership information? (Specify ONLY the option name without any values or parameters.)

Answer: uld=arg http://linux.die.net/man/8/mount.cifs

Question No: 23

Given a proper network and name resolution setup, which of the following commands establishes a trust between a FreelPA domain and an Active Directory domain?

  1. ipa trust-add -type ad addom -admin Administrator -password

  2. ipa-ad -add-trust -account ADDOM\Administrator-query-password

  3. net ad ipajoin addom -U Administrator -p

  4. trustmanager add -_domain ad: //addom -user Administrator -w

  5. ipa ad join addom -U Administrator -w

Answer: A

Question No: 24

Which of the following practices are important for the security of private keys? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

  1. Private keys should be created on the systems where they will be used and should never leave them.

  2. private keys should be uploaded to public key servers.

  3. Private keys should be included in X509 certificates.

  4. Private keys should have a sufficient length for the algorithm used for key generation.

  5. Private keys should always be stored as plain text files without any encryption.

Answer: C,D

Question No: 25

Which of the following commands makes the contents of the eCryptfs encrypted directory –

/Private available to the user?

  1. ecryptfsclient

  2. ecryptfs.mount

  3. ecryptfs-mount-private

  4. decryptfs

  5. ecryptfs-manage-di rectory

Answer: C

Question No: 26

Which of the following commands adds users using SSSD#39;s local service?

  1. sss_adduser

  2. sss_useradd

  3. sss_add

  4. sss-addlocaluser

  5. sss_local_adduser

Answer: B

Question No: 27

Which of the following are differences between AppArmor and SELinux? (Choose TWO correct answers).

  1. AppArmor is implemented in user space only. SELinux is a Linux Kernel Module.

  2. AppArmor is less complex and easier to configure than SELinux.

  3. AppArmor neither requires nor allows any specific configuration. SELinux must always be manually configured.

  4. SELinux stores information in extended file attributes. AppArmor does not maintain file specific information and states.

  5. The SELinux configuration is loaded at boot time and cannot be changed later on AppArmor provides user space tools to change its behavior.

Answer: B,D

Question No: 28

What effect does the following command have on TCP packets?

iptables- A INPUT -d 10 142 232.1 -p tcp -dport 20:21 -j ACCEPT

  1. Forward all TCP traffic not on port 20 or 21 to the IP address 10.142 232.1

  2. Drop all TCP traffic coming from 10 142 232.1 destined for port 20 or 21.

  3. Accept only TCP traffic from 10.142 232.1 destined for port 20 or 21.

  4. Accept all TCP traffic on port 20 and 21 for the IP address 10.142.232.1

Answer: C

Question No: 29 CORRECT TEXT

Which command included in the Linux Audit system provides searching and filtering of the audit log? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: ausearch

Question No: 30

Which of the following components are part of FreeIPA? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

  1. DHCP Server

  2. Kerberos KDC

  3. Intrusion Detection System

  4. Public Key Infrastructure

  5. Directory Server

Answer: B,D,E

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LPIC-3 Exam 303: Security, 2.0

Question No: 11

Which of the following openssl commands generates a certificate signing request (CSR) using the already existing private key contained in the file private/keypair.pem?

  1. openssl req -key private/keypair.pem -out req/csr.pem

  2. openssl req – new -key private/keypair.pem -out req/csr.pem

  3. openssl gencsr -key private/keypair.pem -out req/csr.pem

  4. openssl gencsr -new- key private/keypair.pem -out req/csr.pem

Answer: B

Question No: 12

in which path is the data, which can be altered by the sysctl command, accessible?

  1. /dev/sys/

  2. /sys/

  3. /proc/sys/

  4. /sysctl/

Answer: C

Question No: 13 CORRECT TEXT

Which option in an Apache HTTPD configuration file enables OCSP stapling? (Specify ONLY the option name without any values or parameters.)

Answer: httpd-ssl.conf

Question No: 14

Which of the following configuration options makes Apache HTTPD require a client certificate for authentication?

  1. Limit valid-x509

  2. SSLRequestClientCert always

  3. Require valid-x509

  4. SSLVerifyClient require

  5. SSLPolicy valid-client-cert

Answer: D

Question No: 15

Given that this device has three different keys, which of the following commands deletes only the first key?

  1. cryptsetup luksDelKey /dev/sda 1 0

  2. cryptsetup luksDelkey /dev/sda 1 1

  3. cryptsetup luksDelKey / dev /mapper/crypt- vol 1

  4. cryptsetup luksDelKey / dev /mapper/crypt- vol 0

Answer: A

Question No: 16 CORRECT TEXT

Which PAM module checks new passwords against dictionary words and enforces complexity? (Specially the module name only without any path.)

Answer: pam_cracklib

http;//www-deer-run.com/~hal/sysadmin/pam_cracklib.html

Question No: 17 CORRECT TEXT

Which command, included in BIND, generates DNSSEC keys? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: dnssec-keygen

http://ripe60.ripe.net/pres entations/Damas-BiND_9.7_-_DNSSE_for_humans.pdf

Question No: 18 CORRECT TEXT

Which directive is used in an OpenVPN server configuration in order to send network configuration information to the client? (Specify ONLY the option name without any values or parameters.)

Answer: push https;//community.openvpn.net/openvpn/wiki/RoutedLans

Question No: 19

Which of the following types can be specified within the Linux Audit system? (Choose THREE correct answers)

  1. Control rules

  2. File system rules

  3. Network connection rules

  4. Console rules

  5. System call rules

Answer: A,B,E

Question No: 20

Which of the following resources of a shell and its child processes can be controlled by the Bash build-in command ulimit? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

  1. The maximum size of written files

  2. The maximum number of open file descriptors

  3. The maximum number of newly created files

  4. The maximum number of environment variables

  5. The maximum number of user processes

Answer: A,B,E

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LPIC-3 Exam 303: Security, 2.0

Question No: 1

Which of the following statements is true about chroot environments?

  1. Symbolic links to data outside the chroot path are followed, making files and directories accessible

  2. Hard links to files outside the chroot path are not followed, to increase security

  3. The chroot path needs to contain all data required by the programs running in the chroot environment

  4. Programs are not able to set a chroot path by using a function call, they have to use the command chroot

  5. When using the command chroot, the started command is running in its own namespace and cannot communicate with other processes

Answer: C

Question No: 2

Which of the following DNS record types can the command dnssec-signzone add to a zone? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

  1. ASIG

  2. NSEC

  3. NSEC3

  4. NSSIG

  5. RRSIG

Answer: B,C,E

Question No: 3

Which of the following prefixes could be present in the output of getcifsacl? (Choose

THREE correct answers.)

  1. ACL

  2. GRANT

  3. GROUP

  4. OWNER

  5. SID

Answer: A,C,E

Question No: 4

Which of the following commands changes the source IP address to 192.0.2.11 for all IPv4 packets which go through the network interface eth0?

  1. iptables ~t nat -A POSTROUTING ~o eth0 j SNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11

  2. iptables ~t nat -A PREROUT1NG -\ eth0 -j SNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11

  3. iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING H eth0 -j DNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11

  4. iptables -t mangle -A POSTROUTING -i eth0 -j SNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11

  5. iptables -t mangle -A POSTROUTING -0 eth0 -j SNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11

Answer: A

Question No: 5

Which of the following statements describes the purpose of ndpmon?

  1. it monitors the network for neighbor discovery messages from new IPv6 hosts and routers

  2. it monitors remote hosts by periodically sending echo requests to them.

  3. it monitors the availability of a network link by querying network interfaces.

  4. It monitors the network for IPv4 nodes that have not yet migrated to IPv6.

  5. It monitors log files for failed login attempts in order to block traffic from offending network nodes

Answer: A

Question No: 6 CORRECT TEXT

Which command installs and configures a new FreelPA server, including all sub- components, and creates a new FreelPA domain? (Specially ONLY the command without any path or parameters).

Answer: ipa-server-install

https://www.freeipa.org/images/2/2b/lnstallation_and_Deployment.Guidep.pdf

Question No: 7

Which of the following statements is true regarding eCryptfs?

  1. For every file in an eCryptfs directory there exists a corresponding file that contains the encrypted content.

  2. The content of all files in an eCryptfs directory is stored in an archive file similar to a tar file with an additional index to improve performance.

  3. After unmounting an eCryptfs directory, the directory hierarchy and the original file names are still visible, although, it is not possible to view the contents of the files.

  4. When a user changes his login password, the contents of his eCryptfs home directory has to be re-encrypted using his new login password.

  5. eCryptfs cannot be used to encrypt only directories that are the home directory of a regular Linux user.

Answer: E

Question No: 8

What effect does the configuration SSLStrictSNIVHostCheck on have on an Apache HTTPD virtual host?

  1. The clients connecting to the virtual host must provide a client certificate that was issued by the same CA that issued the server#39;s certificate.

  2. The virtual host is served only to clients that support SNI.

  3. All of the names of the virtual host must be within the same DNS zone.

  4. The virtual host is used as a fallback default for all clients that do not support SNI.

  5. Despite its configuration, the virtual host is served only on the common name and Subject Alternative Names of the server certificates.

Answer: B

Question No: 9

Which option of the openvpn command should be used to ensure that ephemeral keys are

not written to the swap space?

  1. -mlock

  2. -no-swap

  3. -root-swap

  4. -keys-no-swap

Answer: A

Question No: 10

Which of the following keywords are built-in chairs for the iptables nat table? (Choose

THREE correct answers)

  1. OUTPUT

  2. MASQUERADE

  3. PROCESSING

  4. POSTROUTING

  5. PREROUTING

Answer: A,D,E

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IoT Connected Safety and Security Account Manager

Question No: 11

Mining companies can see which three benefits with Cisco Connected Safety and Security? (Choose three.)

  1. increased asset utilization with effective incident response

  2. increased efficiency with remote expertise across sites

  3. increased production downtime due to proactive equipment monitoring

  4. enhanced safety and productivity with highly available workforce communications

  5. reduced congestion and air pollution

Answer: A,B,D

Question No: 12

What is most important for heads of safety and security?

  1. prevent safety and security problems

  2. reduce IT costs

  3. support the needs of the business with IT solutions

  4. deliver superior customer experiences

Answer: A

Question No: 13

What are three differentiators of Cisco ConnectedSafety and Security solutions? (Choose three.)

  1. open standards

  2. exclusive focus on infrastructure products

  3. definitive customer base

  4. scalability and virtualization

  5. comprehensive solutions

Answer: A,D,E

Question No: 14

What are three customer initiatives that can signal an opportunity to make an IoT sale? (Choose three.)

  1. improving operational efficiencies

  2. forming a new department

  3. improving incident response

  4. decreasing budgets

  5. expanding to a new facility

Answer: A,C,E

Question No: 15

Which four of these Cisco Connected Safety and Security solutions can address smart city challenges?(Choose four.)

  1. create safer streets and neighborhoods

  2. increase the productivity and efficiency of city services

  3. promote sustainable city growth

  4. maximize reliability and performance by reducing breakdowns

  5. increase city revenue

  6. enable the flow of goods and services

Answer: A,B,C,F

Question No: 16

What is most important for city managers?

  1. increase revenue and profits

  2. be ready to extend and change safety and security approaches

  3. streamline security management

  4. make the city inviting to people and business

Answer: D

Question No: 17

What are three ways that Cisco Connected Safety and Security solutions help customers to make money? (Choose three.)

  1. improve customer or public experiences

  2. increase collaboration and productivity

  3. create product demand

  4. safeguard data centers

  5. expand to offsite and remote locations

Answer: A,B,E

Question No: 18

In which three ways can Cisco Connected Safety and Security solutions be applied to the oil and gas industry? (Choose three.)

  1. monitor crime and traffic incidents with Cisco Video Surveillance Manager

  2. reduce congestion with parking optimization

  3. operate in hazardous conditions with Cisco ruggedized, IoT-ready infrastructure

  4. improve incident response with Cisco Collaborative Operations

  5. enable remote platform monitoring using Cisco IP cameras and edge video analytics

Answer: C,D,E

Question No: 19

What are three features of Cisco Video Surveillance Manager? (Choose three.)

  1. Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phone mobile clients

  2. geo-mapping

  3. Cisco Dynamic Proxy

  4. ruggedized switches and routers

  5. support for multivendor Cisco and third-party video analytics

Answer: B,C,E

Question No: 20

What are four features ofCisco Connected Safety and Security IP cameras and their applications? (Choose four.)

  1. eliminating connected edge storage

  2. easy deployment through Power over Ethernet

  3. video and audio analytics

  4. open ecosystem for application development

  5. embedded security and networking

  6. Cisco Instant Connect mobile clients

Answer: B,C,D,E

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IoT Connected Safety and Security Account Manager

Question No: 1

CiscoConnected Safety and Security can address which two transportation challenges? (Choose two.)

  1. increase productivity and production rates

  2. ensure 24-hour safety in open environment with high passenger traffic

  3. create safer streets and neighborhoods

  4. prevent or investigate incidents to ensure reliable services

Answer: B,D

Question No: 2

Which option best describes regulation compliance?

  1. Information transfer leaves users open to physical and legal vulnerabilities.

  2. Purchasing, deploying, and integrating new solutions involves significant costs.

  3. BYOD solutions must work with existing and future infrastructure.

  4. New technology must follow standard operating procedures.

  5. Implementing new technologies requires new management techniques.

Answer: D

Question No: 3

What are three ways that Cisco Connected Safety and Security solutions help customers save money? (Choose three.)

  1. virtualized, scalable architecture

  2. lawsuit mitigation

  3. operational efficiencies

  4. replace legacy systems

  5. reduced cost of raw materials

Answer: A,B,C

Question No: 4

Effective public safety requires a positive feedback loop that includes which three options? (Choose three.)

  1. growing economies

  2. better roads

  3. protected citizens

  4. faster subways

  5. stronger communities

Answer: A,C,E

Question No: 5

In which two ways can Cisco Connected Safety and Security solutions be applied to the mining industry? (Choose two.)

  1. enable remote platform monitoring using Cisco IP cameras and edge video analytics

  2. operate in hazardous conditions with Cisco ruggedized, IoT-ready infrastructure

  3. open doors from IP phones and other endpoints with Physical Access Control

  4. monitor crime and traffic incidents with Cisco Video Surveillance Manager

  5. improve incident response with Cisco Collaborative Operations

Answer: B,E

Question No: 6

Which two options represent integrated IoE safety and security solutions? (Choose two.)

  1. Cisco IPICS

  2. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager

  3. Cisco Collaborative Operations

  4. Cisco Connected Justice

Answer: C,D

Question No: 7

By which method does Cisco Connected Safety and Security simplify public safety solution management?

  1. strengthening cyber security solutions

  2. utilizing a single, converged network and applications that unify safety and security operations

  3. reducing costs

  4. replacing old solutions

Answer: B

Question No: 8

What is most important for IT directors?

  1. support the needs of the business with IT solutions

  2. deliver superior customer experiences

  3. increase revenue and profits

  4. respond to changes in the business

Answer: A

Question No: 9

What are three benefits that education customers can see with Cisco Connected Safety and Security? (Choose three.)

  1. reduced visibility

  2. real-time video access from any authorized device

  3. increased operational costs

  4. centralized management and control

  5. improved on-campus physical security

Answer: B,D,E

Question No: 10

What are three benefits that healthcare customers can see with Cisco Connected Safety and Security? (Choose three.)

  1. simplified management

  2. increased patient falls

  3. improved patient monitoring

  4. underutilized staff

  5. improved patient care

Answer: A,C,E

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[Free] 2017(Nov) EnsurePass Braindumps IBM M2150-753 Dumps with VCE and PDF 1-10

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IBM Security Trusteer Web Fraud Partner Sales Mastery Test v1

Question No: 1

Which list of products is part of Trusteer#39;s Web Fraud Portfolio?

  1. Rapport, Apex, Mobile SDK

  2. Pinpoint Malware Detection, Pinpoint Criminal Detection, Apex

  3. Pinpoint Criminal Detection, Rapport, Mobile SDK

  4. Mobile App, Rapport, Apex

Answer: C

Question No: 2

Which is not part of the Rapport Deployment process?

  1. Snippet can be configured to allow user to opt-in or mandate use of Rapport

  2. Data center staff needs to deploy onsite software and hardware

  3. Customer adds a snippet of code to their login page

  4. The snippet actually manages the deployment process

Answer: B

Question No: 3

What is the Trusteer Mobile Risk Engine (MRE)?

  1. A plug-in installed on the end point device protecting online banking (OLB) web transactions

  2. Web based service to correlate mobile device risk factors with account compromise history.

  3. A browser based application serving all of Trusteer#39;s Mobile customers

  4. A master remote end-point solution to mitigate mobile malware

Answer: B

Reference: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/library/se-trusteer/

Question No: 4

Why do I need a persistent device ID for my mobile device?

  1. To uniquely identify a device and correlate it to a known bank account and to identify when a new device is accessing an existing account

  2. To be able to detect multiple account accesses from a single device

  3. To be able to tag and blacklist fraudulent devices

  4. All of the above

Answer: C

Question No: 5

What is TMA?

  1. Trusteer Management Appliance

  2. Trusteer Management Application

  3. Trusteer Mobile Application

  4. Trusteer Marketing Appliance

Answer: B

Reference:

http://www.trusteer.com/products/ibm-security-trusteer-management-application

Question No: 6

What is the risk of Jail braking or Rooting a mobile device?

  1. It can cause the operating system to perform slower than usual

  2. It breaks the platform#39;s built in security and exposes the device to additional risks

  3. No risk at all. It will just allow the user to perform more tasks on the device

  4. Loss of warranty for the device

Answer: B

Question No: 7

Which solution automatically removes malware and blocks malware attacks before they can be initiated?

  1. Mobile SDK

  2. Pinpoint Malware Detection

  3. Pinpoint Criminal Detection

  4. Rapport

Answer: D

Question No: 8

Which Trusteer#39;s Web Fraud product prevents infection and removes live and inactive Man-in-the-Browser (MitB) from infected computers?

  1. Mobile Risk Engine

  2. Pinpoint Malware Detection

  3. Pinpoint Criminal Detection

  4. Rapport

Answer: B Explanation: Referance:

http://www.aciworldwide.com/-/media/files/other/ltr-trusteer-products.pdf

Question No: 9

When using Pinpoint Malware Detection, what occurs in the vast majority of cases?

  1. Malware infected devices are identified as they attempt to log on to the banking

    application

  2. End-users are contacted and told they have to remove the malware

  3. Results are fed to the risk engine

  4. Transactions reviewed from the originating device

Answer: C

Question No: 10

Which answer highlights Trusteer#39;s unique value?

  1. Real-time intelligence from 270M endpoints

  2. Minimal impact to the customer experience (reducing unnecessary authentication challenges)

  3. Reduces operational impact – reduces false positives

  4. All of the above are part of Trusteer#39;s value proposition

Answer: A

Reference: ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/pdf/Trusteer_Cambridge_Briefing_10-22-14.pdf

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[Free] 2017(Nov) Latesttests Dumpsleader LPI 202-400 Dumps with VCE and PDF 191-200

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LPIC-2 Exam 202, Part 2 of 2, version 4.0

Question No: 191 – (Topic 2)

As of Linux kernel 2.4, which software is used to configure a VPN?

  1. IPSec

  2. SSH

  3. net – tools

  4. FreeS/WAN

  5. iproute2

Answer: D

Question No: 192 – (Topic 2)

What command must be used to print the kernel#39;s routing table?

  1. route print

  2. route enumerate

  3. route show

  4. route list

  5. route

Answer: E

Question No: 193 – (Topic 2)

Which TWO of the following wireless tools can be used to check the wireless network link quality?

  1. iwconfig

  2. iwlink

  3. iwscan

  4. iwifi

  5. iwspy

Answer: A,E

Question No: 194 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

Which site-specific configuration file for the shadow login suite must be modified to log login failures? Please enter the complete path to that file.

Answer: /etc/login.defs

Question No: 195 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

In which file, on an INN news server, can access to the news server be configured? (Enter only the file name).

Answer: readers.conf

Question No: 196 – (Topic 2)

What must be done on a host to allow a user to log in to that host using an SSH key?

  1. Add their private key to ~/. ssh/authorized_keys

  2. Reference their public key in ~/. ssh/config

  3. Run ssh-agent on that host

  4. Add their public key to ~/. ssh/authorized_keys

  5. Reference their private key in ~/. ssh/config

Answer: D

Question No: 197 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

According to the dhcpd.conf file below, which domain name will clients in the 172.16.87.0/24 network get?

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Answer: lab.certkiller.com

Question No: 198 – (Topic 2)

Which option must be used with ifconfig, to also see interfaces that are down?

  1. -d

  2. -a

  3. -all

  4. -down

  5. None.

Answer: A

Question No: 199 – (Topic 2)

Which of the following sentences is true, when using the following /etc/pam.d/login file?

#%PAM-l.0

auth required /lib/security/pam_securetty.so auth required /lib/security/pam_nologin.so

auth sufficient /lib/security/pam_unix.so shadow nullok md5 use_authtok auth required /lib/security/pam_ldap.so use_first_pass

account sufficient /lib/security/pam_unix.so account required /lib/security/pam_ldap.so password required /lib/security/pam_cracklib.so

password sufficient /lib/security/pam_unix.so nullok use_authtok md5 shadow password required /lib/security/pam_ldap.so use_first_pass

session optional /lib/security/pam_console.so session sufficient /lib/security/pam_unix.so session required /lib/security/pam_ldap.so

  1. All users will be authenticated against the LDAP directory

  2. This is the only file needed to configure LDAP authentication on Linux

  3. Only local users will be able to log in, when the file/etc/nologin exists

  4. Ordinary users will be able to change their password to be blank

  5. If the control flags for auth were changed to required, local users wouldn#39;t be able to log in

Answer: D

Question No: 200 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

To allow X connections to be forwarded from or through an SSH server, what line must exist in the sshd configuration file?

Answer: X11Forwarding yes

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[Free] 2017(Nov) Latesttests Dumpsleader LPI 202-400 Dumps with VCE and PDF 181-190

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LPIC-2 Exam 202, Part 2 of 2, version 4.0

Question No: 181 – (Topic 2)

When configuring a PPP dial-in server, which option is used (in the pppd configuration file) to enable user authentication against the system password database?

  1. login

  2. auth

  3. local

  4. password

  5. user

Answer: A

Question No: 182 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

Please enter the name of the main majordomo configuration file without the path.

Answer: majordomo.cf

Question No: 183 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

Which port must be open on a firewall, to allow a DNS server to receive queries? (Enter

only the port number).

Answer: 53

Question No: 184 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

Please enter the command used to remove Kerberos tickets from the cache below.

Answer: kdestroy

Question No: 185 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

You are not sure whether the kernel has detected a piece of hardware in your machine. What command, without options or parameters, should be run to present the contents of the kernel ringbuffer?

Answer: dmesg

Question No: 186 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

Enter one of the Apache configuration file directives that defines where log files are stored.

Answer: ErrorLog

Question No: 187 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

Using only commands included with named, what is the command, with options or parameters, to make named re-read its zone files?

Answer: rndc reload

Question No: 188 – (Topic 2)

Which command line create an SSH tunnel for POP and SMTP protocols?

  1. ssh- L :110 -L :25 -1 user -N mailhost

  2. ssh -L 25:110 -1 user -N mailhost

  3. ssh -L mailhost:110 -L mailhost:25 -1 user -N mailhost

  4. ssh -L mailhost:25:110 -1 user

  5. ssh -L 110:mailhost:110 -L 25:mailhost:25 -1 user -N mailhost

Answer: E

Question No: 189 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

According to the configuration below, what is the e-mail address of the administrator for this domain?

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Answer: hostmaster@certkiller.com

Question No: 190 CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 2)

Which file on a Postfix server modifies the sender address for outgoing e-mails? Please enter only the file name without the path

Answer: sender_canonical

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